Polity — Indian Constitution
Q781EasyBPSC Prelims
The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on which date?
AAugust 15, 1947
BJanuary 26, 1950
CNovember 26, 1949
DNovember 26, 1946
Show Answer
✔ C — November 26, 1949
The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949 — which is why this date is celebrated as "Constitution Day" (Samvidhan Divas) in India, declared officially in 2015. The Constitution came into effect (enforcement) on January 26, 1950 — chosen to coincide with the declaration of Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) on January 26, 1930 by the Indian National Congress. The Constituent Assembly first met on December 9, 1946. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee.
*Why A is wrong:* August 15, 1947 is Independence Day — Transfer of power from British.
*Why B is wrong:* January 26, 1950 is Republic Day — when Constitution came into FORCE, not when adopted.
*Why D is wrong:* November 26, 1946 is roughly when the Constituent Assembly began meetings, not adoption.
*Why A is wrong:* August 15, 1947 is Independence Day — Transfer of power from British.
*Why B is wrong:* January 26, 1950 is Republic Day — when Constitution came into FORCE, not when adopted.
*Why D is wrong:* November 26, 1946 is roughly when the Constituent Assembly began meetings, not adoption.
Q782MediumBPSC Prelims
How many Articles and Schedules does the Indian Constitution currently have (as of 2024)?
A395 Articles, 8 Schedules (original)
B448 Articles, 12 Schedules (as amended)
C400 Articles, 10 Schedules
D450 Articles, 15 Schedules
Show Answer
✔ B — 448 Articles, 12 Schedules (as amended)
The original Indian Constitution (1950) had 395 Articles organized into 22 Parts, and 8 Schedules. Through numerous constitutional amendments over decades, the Constitution has grown. As of 2024 (post-105th Amendment, 2021), the Constitution has approximately 448 Articles (some have been deleted/added/renumbered) organized into 25 Parts, and 12 Schedules. The 9th Schedule (1951), 10th Schedule (1985 — Anti-defection), 11th Schedule (1992 — Panchayats), and 12th Schedule (1992 — Municipalities) were added later.
*Why A is wrong:* Original counts (395 Articles, 8 Schedules) are not the current counts.
*Why C is wrong:* 400 Articles, 10 Schedules is incorrect — current is ~448 and 12.
*Why D is wrong:* 450 Articles, 15 Schedules is an overestimate.
*Why A is wrong:* Original counts (395 Articles, 8 Schedules) are not the current counts.
*Why C is wrong:* 400 Articles, 10 Schedules is incorrect — current is ~448 and 12.
*Why D is wrong:* 450 Articles, 15 Schedules is an overestimate.
Polity — Sources of Constitution
Q783HardBPSC Prelims
The concept of "Fundamental Rights" in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from which country's constitution?
AUnited Kingdom
BIreland
CUnited States of America
DAustralia
Show Answer
✔ C — United States of America
India's Fundamental Rights (Part III, Articles 12–35) are modeled primarily on the US Bill of Rights (first 10 Amendments to the US Constitution, 1791). Other borrowings: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) — from Ireland's Constitution (Directive Principles of Social Policy); Parliamentary system of government — from UK (Westminster model); Concurrent List / Cooperative Federalism — from Australia; Emergency provisions — from Germany (Weimar Constitution); Fundamental Duties — from USSR (Soviet Constitution). The Preamble's "We the People" language is also US-influenced.
*Why A is wrong:* UK gave the parliamentary system, not Fundamental Rights.
*Why B is wrong:* Ireland gave the DPSP concept, not Fundamental Rights.
*Why D is wrong:* Australia gave the Concurrent List / federal structure inspiration.
*Why A is wrong:* UK gave the parliamentary system, not Fundamental Rights.
*Why B is wrong:* Ireland gave the DPSP concept, not Fundamental Rights.
*Why D is wrong:* Australia gave the Concurrent List / federal structure inspiration.
Polity — Fundamental Rights
Q784EasyBPSC Prelims
Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?
AArticle 14
BArticle 15
CArticle 17
DArticle 19
Show Answer
✔ C — Article 17
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability is made a punishable offence. To give effect to Article 17, Parliament enacted the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (earlier called the Untouchability (Offences) Act). The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 provides further protection. Untouchability in India was practiced against Dalits (formerly "untouchable" castes).
*Why A is wrong:* Article 14 guarantees Equality before law and Equal protection of laws.
*Why B is wrong:* Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 19 guarantees six fundamental freedoms (speech, assembly, movement, etc.).
*Why A is wrong:* Article 14 guarantees Equality before law and Equal protection of laws.
*Why B is wrong:* Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 19 guarantees six fundamental freedoms (speech, assembly, movement, etc.).
Q785MediumBPSC Prelims
The Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) is considered by Dr. Ambedkar as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution because:
AIt allows Parliament to amend the Constitution
BIt empowers citizens to directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights through writs
CIt gives the President power to proclaim emergency
DIt provides for reservation in education and employment
Show Answer
✔ B — It empowers citizens to directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights through writs
Article 32 gives citizens the right to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. This right itself cannot be suspended except during National Emergency (Article 359 — but Article 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during emergency after the 44th Amendment). Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the "heart and soul of the Constitution" because without enforcement mechanism, rights are meaningless. The five writs available under Article 32 (and Article 226 for High Courts): Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto.
*Why A is wrong:* Amendment procedure is under Article 368.
*Why C is wrong:* Emergency proclamation is under Article 352.
*Why D is wrong:* Reservations are under Articles 15(4), 15(5), 16(4).
*Why A is wrong:* Amendment procedure is under Article 368.
*Why C is wrong:* Emergency proclamation is under Article 352.
*Why D is wrong:* Reservations are under Articles 15(4), 15(5), 16(4).
Q787MediumBPSC Prelims
Article 21A (Right to Education) was inserted by which Constitutional Amendment and guarantees free and compulsory education for children in which age group?
A86th Amendment, 2002; 6–14 years
B73rd Amendment, 1992; 6–14 years
C86th Amendment, 2002; 5–15 years
D93rd Amendment, 2005; 6–18 years
Show Answer
✔ A — 86th Amendment, 2002; 6–14 years
Article 21A was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, making education a Fundamental Right. It mandates free and compulsory education for all children between 6–14 years of age. To implement Article 21A, the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (RTE Act) was enacted in 2009 and came into force on April 1, 2010. The RTE Act mandates 25% reservation of seats in private unaided schools for children from weaker sections (EWS). Children aged 6–14 = Classes I to VIII.
*Why B is wrong:* 73rd Amendment (1992) related to Panchayati Raj — not education rights.
*Why C is wrong:* Age group is 6–14, not 5–15.
*Why D is wrong:* 93rd Amendment (2005) added Article 15(5) for OBC reservations in educational institutions — not Article 21A.
*Why B is wrong:* 73rd Amendment (1992) related to Panchayati Raj — not education rights.
*Why C is wrong:* Age group is 6–14, not 5–15.
*Why D is wrong:* 93rd Amendment (2005) added Article 15(5) for OBC reservations in educational institutions — not Article 21A.
Q801MediumBPSC Prelims
Which Article of the Constitution provides for the Right to Freedom of Religion, and what does it guarantee?
AArticle 19 — freedom to profess any religion
BArticles 25–28 — freedom of conscience, free profession, practice and propagation of religion, and management of religious affairs
CArticle 21 — freedom of religious expression as part of personal liberty
DArticle 14 — equal treatment of all religions
Show Answer
✔ B — Articles 25–28 — freedom of conscience, free profession, practice and propagation of religion, and management of religious affairs
Right to Freedom of Religion is guaranteed under Articles 25–28: Article 25 = Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (subject to public order, morality, health); Article 26 = Freedom to manage religious affairs (right of every religious denomination to manage its own affairs); Article 27 = Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion; Article 28 = Freedom from attending religious instruction in state-funded educational institutions. Article 25 allows the state to regulate secular activities associated with religious practice and to make laws for social reform (like opening temples to all).
*Why A is wrong:* Article 19 guarantees six freedoms (speech, assembly, movement, etc.) — not specifically religion.
*Why C is wrong:* Article 21 is right to life and personal liberty — broader but not the specific religion article.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 14 is about equality — not freedom of religion.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 19 guarantees six freedoms (speech, assembly, movement, etc.) — not specifically religion.
*Why C is wrong:* Article 21 is right to life and personal liberty — broader but not the specific religion article.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 14 is about equality — not freedom of religion.
Q814EasyBPSC Prelims
Under Article 19 of the Constitution, Indian citizens have six fundamental freedoms. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
AFreedom of speech and expression
BFreedom to assemble peaceably and without arms
CFreedom to move freely throughout India
DFreedom to vote in elections
Show Answer
✔ D — Freedom to vote in elections
Article 19 guarantees 6 freedoms to Indian citizens: (1) Freedom of speech and expression (19(1)(a)); (2) Freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms (19(1)(b)); (3) Freedom to form associations/unions (19(1)(c)); (4) Freedom to move freely throughout India (19(1)(d)); (5) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India (19(1)(e)); (6) Freedom to practise any profession or carry on any occupation, trade, or business (19(1)(g)). Note: Article 19(1)(f) — Right to property — was deleted by the 44th Amendment (1978). Right to vote is NOT a fundamental right — it is a constitutional right under Article 326 but can be regulated by Parliament.
*Why A is wrong:* Freedom of speech IS one of the six freedoms under Article 19.
*Why B is wrong:* Freedom to assemble IS one of the six freedoms under Article 19.
*Why C is wrong:* Freedom to move freely IS one of the six freedoms under Article 19.
*Why A is wrong:* Freedom of speech IS one of the six freedoms under Article 19.
*Why B is wrong:* Freedom to assemble IS one of the six freedoms under Article 19.
*Why C is wrong:* Freedom to move freely IS one of the six freedoms under Article 19.
Q819HardBPSC Prelims
The Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) unanimously declared privacy as a fundamental right under which Articles of the Constitution?
AArticle 19 alone
BArticles 14, 19, and 21 — as part of the fundamental rights framework
CArticle 21 alone
DArticle 12 read with Article 13
Show Answer
✔ B — Articles 14, 19, and 21 — as part of the fundamental rights framework
In the landmark 9-judge bench decision in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India (2017), the Supreme Court unanimously held that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right protected under the Indian Constitution. The majority opinion held that privacy is intrinsic to Articles 14 (equality and dignity), 19 (freedom rights), and 21 (right to life and personal liberty). Privacy protects individual autonomy, dignity, and liberty. The case arose in the context of the Aadhaar biometric scheme. This judgment overruled earlier judgments (M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra, 1954 and Kharak Singh v. State of UP, 1962) that denied privacy as a fundamental right.
*Why A is wrong:* Privacy is not located in Article 19 alone — it spans 14, 19, and 21.
*Why C is wrong:* While Article 21 is central, the court located privacy across multiple rights articles.
*Why D is wrong:* Articles 12 and 13 deal with defining "State" and laws inconsistent with FRs — not the location of privacy right itself.
*Why A is wrong:* Privacy is not located in Article 19 alone — it spans 14, 19, and 21.
*Why C is wrong:* While Article 21 is central, the court located privacy across multiple rights articles.
*Why D is wrong:* Articles 12 and 13 deal with defining "State" and laws inconsistent with FRs — not the location of privacy right itself.
Polity — Writs
Q786HardBPSC Prelims
Which writ is issued by a superior court to an inferior court/tribunal directing it to stop proceedings in a case because it lacks jurisdiction?
AMandamus
BCertiorari
CProhibition
DQuo Warranto
Show Answer
✔ C — Prohibition
The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court (SC or HC) to an inferior court or tribunal directing it to STOP proceedings in a pending matter because it lacks jurisdiction or is acting in excess of jurisdiction. This is a preventive writ (prevents excess jurisdiction). Certiorari (also about jurisdiction) is a curative writ — issued after the inferior court has passed an order, directing it to quash that order for excess jurisdiction, legal error, or violation of natural justice. Prohibition = stop ongoing; Certiorari = quash already done.
*Why A is wrong:* Mandamus is issued to compel a public authority to perform its mandatory duty — not about jurisdiction.
*Why B is wrong:* Certiorari quashes an ALREADY MADE order; Prohibition stops ONGOING proceedings.
*Why D is wrong:* Quo Warranto questions the legal authority of a person to hold a public office.
*Why A is wrong:* Mandamus is issued to compel a public authority to perform its mandatory duty — not about jurisdiction.
*Why B is wrong:* Certiorari quashes an ALREADY MADE order; Prohibition stops ONGOING proceedings.
*Why D is wrong:* Quo Warranto questions the legal authority of a person to hold a public office.
Polity — DPSP
Q788EasyBPSC Prelims
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are contained in which Part of the Indian Constitution?
APart II
BPart III
CPart IV
DPart IVA
Show Answer
✔ C — Part IV
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36–51). They are non-justiciable — courts cannot enforce them through writs (unlike Fundamental Rights in Part III). However, DPSPs are fundamental to governance and the state is obligated to apply these principles in making laws. DPSPs are borrowed from the Irish Constitution. Part II = Citizenship (Articles 5–11); Part III = Fundamental Rights (Articles 12–35); Part IVA = Fundamental Duties (Article 51A, added by 42nd Amendment 1976).
*Why A is wrong:* Part II deals with Citizenship (Articles 5–11).
*Why B is wrong:* Part III contains Fundamental Rights (Articles 12–35).
*Why D is wrong:* Part IVA (Article 51A) contains Fundamental Duties, added by 42nd Amendment.
*Why A is wrong:* Part II deals with Citizenship (Articles 5–11).
*Why B is wrong:* Part III contains Fundamental Rights (Articles 12–35).
*Why D is wrong:* Part IVA (Article 51A) contains Fundamental Duties, added by 42nd Amendment.
Q789HardBPSC Prelims
Which DPSP Article directs the state to secure "equal pay for equal work" for both men and women?
AArticle 38
BArticle 39
CArticle 41
DArticle 44
Show Answer
✔ B — Article 39
Article 39 contains several sub-clauses directing the state toward economic justice: (a) adequate means of livelihood for all citizens; (b) equitable distribution of material resources; (c) prevention of concentration of wealth; (d) equal pay for equal work for men and women; (e) protection of workers' health; (f) protection of children. The Supreme Court in Randhir Singh v. Union of India (1982) held "equal pay for equal work" to be a constitutional goal derivable from Articles 14, 16, and 39(d). Article 38 = State to promote social order for welfare; Article 41 = Right to work, education, public assistance; Article 44 = Uniform Civil Code.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 38 directs the state to promote welfare of the people by securing social order.
*Why C is wrong:* Article 41 directs the state to secure the right to work, education, and public assistance.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 44 directs the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for citizens.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 38 directs the state to promote welfare of the people by securing social order.
*Why C is wrong:* Article 41 directs the state to secure the right to work, education, and public assistance.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 44 directs the state to secure a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for citizens.
Q813MediumBPSC Prelims
The concept of "Uniform Civil Code" (UCC) is mentioned in which Article of the Constitution, and is it currently implemented in India?
AArticle 41; Partially implemented in some states
BArticle 44; Not yet implemented uniformly across India (Goa has its own civil code)
CArticle 38; Fully implemented under central law
DArticle 51A; Only as a Fundamental Duty
Show Answer
✔ B — Article 44; Not yet implemented uniformly across India (Goa has its own civil code)
Article 44 (DPSP) directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens throughout the territory of India. The UCC is meant to replace personal laws (Hindu, Muslim, Christian laws on marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption) with a common civil law for all. As of 2024, the UCC has NOT been implemented uniformly. Goa (Portuguese Civil Code) is the only state with a uniform civil code — the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867 applies to all Goans regardless of religion for matters of marriage, divorce, inheritance. UCC remains politically and legally contentious; the Supreme Court has urged Parliament to implement it in several cases.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 41 directs right to work, education, public assistance — not UCC.
*Why C is wrong:* Article 38 is about social order/welfare — not UCC; it's not fully implemented.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 51A is Fundamental Duties; UCC is under DPSP Article 44.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 41 directs right to work, education, public assistance — not UCC.
*Why C is wrong:* Article 38 is about social order/welfare — not UCC; it's not fully implemented.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 51A is Fundamental Duties; UCC is under DPSP Article 44.
Polity — Conflict between Fundamental Rights and DPSP
Q790MediumBPSC Prelims
The Supreme Court resolved the conflict between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs in which landmark case by holding that Parliament can amend Fundamental Rights to implement DPSPs provided the "basic structure" is not violated?
AA.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950)
BKesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
CManeka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
DMinerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
Show Answer
✔ B — Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) is the most significant constitutional case in Indian history. The 13-judge bench of the Supreme Court (by 7-6 majority) held that: (1) Parliament's amending power under Article 368 is limited; (2) Parliament cannot destroy the "basic structure" of the Constitution even through constitutional amendment. This case also settled (partially) that DPSPs can be given primacy over Fundamental Rights through amendment, as long as basic structure is not violated. The Minerva Mills case (1980) further refined this by holding that the balance between FRs and DPSPs is itself part of basic structure.
*Why A is wrong:* A.K. Gopalan (1950) dealt with preventive detention and personal liberty — not FR-DPSP conflict.
*Why C is wrong:* Maneka Gandhi (1978) expanded the scope of Article 21 (life and liberty).
*Why D is wrong:* Minerva Mills (1980) refined Kesavananda but was not the primary case establishing basic structure.
*Why A is wrong:* A.K. Gopalan (1950) dealt with preventive detention and personal liberty — not FR-DPSP conflict.
*Why C is wrong:* Maneka Gandhi (1978) expanded the scope of Article 21 (life and liberty).
*Why D is wrong:* Minerva Mills (1980) refined Kesavananda but was not the primary case establishing basic structure.
Polity — Parliament
Q791EasyBPSC Prelims
The Indian Parliament consists of which houses?
ALok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
BRajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
CLok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President of India
DOnly Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Show Answer
✔ C — Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President of India
Under Article 79, the Parliament of India consists of: (1) The President of India; (2) The Rajya Sabha (Council of States — Upper House); (3) The Lok Sabha (House of the People — Lower House). The President is an integral part of Parliament even though they do not sit in Parliament sessions. The President summons, prorogues, and dissolves Parliament. A bill becomes law only after the President's assent. Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad are houses of State Legislatures, not Parliament.
*Why A is wrong:* Vidhan Sabha is a state legislature body, not part of Parliament.
*Why B is wrong:* Vidhan Parishad (state legislative council) is not part of Parliament.
*Why D is wrong:* This misses the President — who is constitutionally part of Parliament.
*Why A is wrong:* Vidhan Sabha is a state legislature body, not part of Parliament.
*Why B is wrong:* Vidhan Parishad (state legislative council) is not part of Parliament.
*Why D is wrong:* This misses the President — who is constitutionally part of Parliament.
Q792MediumBPSC Prelims
The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha respectively are:
A545 and 250
B552 and 250
C540 and 245
D550 and 250
Show Answer
✔ B — 552 and 250
Lok Sabha maximum strength: 552 members — 530 from states, 20 from Union Territories, and 2 nominated Anglo-Indian members (though Anglo-Indian nomination was abolished by 104th Amendment, 2020). Current strength after 2020: 543 (530 + 13 from UTs) — elections contested. Rajya Sabha maximum strength: 250 members — 238 elected by State Legislatures and UTs, and 12 nominated by the President from fields of art, literature, science, and social service (under Article 80). Current Rajya Sabha strength: 245.
*Why A is wrong:* 545 Lok Sabha is the actual elected strength but not the maximum constitutional strength; 250 Rajya Sabha is the maximum.
*Why C is wrong:* 540 is not the correct maximum for Lok Sabha.
*Why D is wrong:* 550 is not the constitutional maximum.
*Why A is wrong:* 545 Lok Sabha is the actual elected strength but not the maximum constitutional strength; 250 Rajya Sabha is the maximum.
*Why C is wrong:* 540 is not the correct maximum for Lok Sabha.
*Why D is wrong:* 550 is not the constitutional maximum.
Q793HardBPSC Prelims
Which of the following Bills can ONLY originate in the Lok Sabha (not in Rajya Sabha)?
AConstitutional Amendment Bills
BMoney Bills (Article 110) and Finance Bills
COrdinary Bills
DBoth Money Bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills
Show Answer
✔ B — Money Bills (Article 110) and Finance Bills
Under Article 109, Money Bills can only originate in the Lok Sabha (on recommendation of the President). The Rajya Sabha has limited power over Money Bills — it can suggest amendments but cannot reject or hold them for more than 14 days. If the Rajya Sabha does not act within 14 days, the Money Bill is deemed passed. Finance Bills (partly financial nature) also originate only in Lok Sabha. Constitutional Amendment Bills (Article 368) can originate in either house. Ordinary Bills can originate in either house. Joint sessions are not applicable for Money Bills.
*Why A is wrong:* Constitutional Amendment Bills can be introduced in either house of Parliament.
*Why C is wrong:* Ordinary Bills can originate in either the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
*Why D is wrong:* Constitutional Amendment Bills are not restricted to Lok Sabha.
*Why A is wrong:* Constitutional Amendment Bills can be introduced in either house of Parliament.
*Why C is wrong:* Ordinary Bills can originate in either the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
*Why D is wrong:* Constitutional Amendment Bills are not restricted to Lok Sabha.
Q800HardBPSC Prelims
The concept of "Question Hour" in Parliament is governed by which rules, and what are the different types of questions asked?
ARules of Procedure and Conduct of Business; Starred (oral, supplementary allowed), Unstarred (written answer, no supplementary), and Short Notice Questions
BConstitutional provisions under Article 75; only oral questions
CRajya Sabha and Lok Sabha separately follow British practice; only supplementary questions
DConstitutional provisions under Article 105; only Starred questions
Show Answer
✔ A — Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business; Starred (oral, supplementary allowed), Unstarred (written answer, no supplementary), and Short Notice Questions
Question Hour is governed by the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Parliament (not Constitution directly). Types of parliamentary questions: (1) Starred Questions (marked *) — require ORAL answers from the Minister; supplementary questions can be asked after the original; listed in blue color; (2) Unstarred Questions — require WRITTEN answers; no supplementary questions; (3) Short Notice Questions — asked with less than 10 days' notice on urgent public matters; (4) Questions to Private Members — for private member bills. Each Question Hour session allows 20 starred questions; Lok Sabha allots the first hour (11 AM – 12 noon) to questions.
*Why B is wrong:* Article 75 deals with PM and Council of Ministers — not Question Hour rules.
*Why C is wrong:* It's rules of procedure, not British practice directly; both houses have their own separate procedures.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 105 deals with parliamentary privileges — not Question Hour procedure.
*Why B is wrong:* Article 75 deals with PM and Council of Ministers — not Question Hour rules.
*Why C is wrong:* It's rules of procedure, not British practice directly; both houses have their own separate procedures.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 105 deals with parliamentary privileges — not Question Hour procedure.
Q802EasyBPSC Prelims
The Anti-Defection Law in India is contained in which Schedule of the Constitution?
A8th Schedule
B9th Schedule
C10th Schedule
D11th Schedule
Show Answer
✔ C — 10th Schedule
The Anti-Defection Law is contained in the 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution, added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. It disqualifies members of Parliament and State Legislatures from membership if they: (a) voluntarily give up membership of their political party; (b) vote or abstain contrary to party whip directions. Exception: If at least two-thirds of the party's members in the legislature merge with another party. The Speaker/Chairman decides disqualification cases. The Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachilhu (1992) case upheld the 10th Schedule's validity.
*Why A is wrong:* 8th Schedule lists 22 official languages of India.
*Why B is wrong:* 9th Schedule (added by 1st Amendment, 1951) contains laws protected from judicial review for property rights.
*Why D is wrong:* 11th Schedule (73rd Amendment, 1992) lists 29 subjects for Panchayati Raj institutions.
*Why A is wrong:* 8th Schedule lists 22 official languages of India.
*Why B is wrong:* 9th Schedule (added by 1st Amendment, 1951) contains laws protected from judicial review for property rights.
*Why D is wrong:* 11th Schedule (73rd Amendment, 1992) lists 29 subjects for Panchayati Raj institutions.
Q804MediumBPSC Prelims
The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body that cannot be dissolved. How many members retire every two years?
AOne-quarter
BOne-third
COne-half
DAll members simultaneously
Show Answer
✔ B — One-third
The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body — it cannot be dissolved. Instead, one-third of its members retire every two years (biennial elections). Members serve a 6-year term. This staggered system ensures continuity of the upper house. Currently the Rajya Sabha has 245 members: 233 elected + 12 nominated by the President. The nominated members serve 6-year terms. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha; the Deputy Chairman is elected from among its members.
*Why A is wrong:* One-quarter would make the cycle 8 years — not the correct ratio.
*Why C is wrong:* One-half would mean 3-year terms — incorrect.
*Why D is wrong:* Dissolving all at once would make it not a permanent house.
*Why A is wrong:* One-quarter would make the cycle 8 years — not the correct ratio.
*Why C is wrong:* One-half would mean 3-year terms — incorrect.
*Why D is wrong:* Dissolving all at once would make it not a permanent house.
Q812HardBPSC Prelims
A "Money Bill" under Article 110 of the Constitution includes which of the following provisions EXCLUSIVELY?
AAny bill that deals with any matter related to the budget or economy
BA bill that contains provisions dealing with: imposition/abolition/remission of taxes, regulation of government borrowing, custody of Consolidated Fund of India/Contingency Fund, appropriation of money from CFI, declaration of expenditure charged on CFI, receipt of money on CFI account, or any incidental matter
CAny bill requiring expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
DBills passed by Lok Sabha with simple majority
Show Answer
✔ B — A bill that contains provisions dealing with: imposition/abolition/remission of taxes, regulation of government borrowing, custody of Consolidated Fund of India/Contingency Fund, appropriation of money from CFI, declaration of expenditure charged on CFI, receipt of money on CFI account, or any incidental matter
Article 110(1) defines a Money Bill as one containing provisions dealing with: (a) imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of taxes; (b) regulation of borrowing of money by the Government; (c) custody/withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) or Contingency Fund; (d) appropriation of money from CFI; (e) declaration of expenditure charged on CFI or increasing its amount; (f) receipt of money on account of CFI/contingency fund/public account; (g) any matter incidental to these. The Speaker certifies a bill as a Money Bill — this certification is final and cannot be questioned in any court (Article 110(3)).
*Why A is wrong:* "Economy-related" bills are not automatically Money Bills — only specific provisions listed in Art 110(1) qualify.
*Why C is wrong:* Bills requiring CFI expenditure may be Finance Bills (Part I) but not necessarily Money Bills.
*Why D is wrong:* Simple majority is not what defines a Money Bill; the content (Art 110(1) provisions) determines classification.
*Why A is wrong:* "Economy-related" bills are not automatically Money Bills — only specific provisions listed in Art 110(1) qualify.
*Why C is wrong:* Bills requiring CFI expenditure may be Finance Bills (Part I) but not necessarily Money Bills.
*Why D is wrong:* Simple majority is not what defines a Money Bill; the content (Art 110(1) provisions) determines classification.
Q816MediumBPSC Prelims
The number of times a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament has been convened in India (as of 2024) is:
AZero — it has never been held
BThree times (1961 — Dowry Prohibition Bill; 1978 — Banking Service Commission Bill; 2002 — Prevention of Terrorism Ordinance Bill)
CFive times
DTwice
Show Answer
✔ B — Three times (1961 — Dowry Prohibition Bill; 1978 — Banking Service Commission Bill; 2002 — Prevention of Terrorism Ordinance Bill)
A joint sitting of both houses of Parliament (Article 108) can be called by the President to resolve deadlock when one house rejects/amends a bill unacceptably. The Lok Sabha Speaker presides over joint sittings. Joint sessions have been held only THREE times in Indian parliamentary history: (1) 1961 — Dowry Prohibition Bill; (2) 1978 — Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill; (3) 2002 — Prevention of Terrorism Ordinance (POTO) Bill (became POTA). Joint sessions cannot be called for Money Bills (only Lok Sabha decides), Constitutional Amendment Bills (must be passed separately by each house by special majority), or Rajya Sabha-only bills.
*Why A is wrong:* Joint sessions have been held — 3 times.
*Why C is wrong:* Five times is an overcount.
*Why D is wrong:* Twice is an undercount — it's three times.
*Why A is wrong:* Joint sessions have been held — 3 times.
*Why C is wrong:* Five times is an overcount.
*Why D is wrong:* Twice is an undercount — it's three times.
Q820MediumBPSC Prelims
Which parliamentary committee is often called "watchdog of the public purse"?
AEstimates Committee
BPublic Accounts Committee (PAC)
CCommittee on Public Undertakings
DBusiness Advisory Committee
Show Answer
✔ B — Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is called the "watchdog of the public purse" because it examines the annual appropriation accounts (how money was actually spent) and the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). The PAC has 22 members — 15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha. The Chairman is always from the Opposition party (since 1967 convention). The PAC examines if money was spent for the purpose Parliament sanctioned, with efficiency and without wastage. The Estimates Committee (26 members) examines budget estimates BEFORE spending; the PAC examines AFTER spending.
*Why A is wrong:* Estimates Committee examines budget estimates — it's a "continuous economy committee" not the primary watchdog after spending.
*Why C is wrong:* Committee on Public Undertakings examines public sector enterprises — not the general treasury watchdog.
*Why D is wrong:* Business Advisory Committee advises on Lok Sabha's legislative business — not financial scrutiny.
*Why A is wrong:* Estimates Committee examines budget estimates — it's a "continuous economy committee" not the primary watchdog after spending.
*Why C is wrong:* Committee on Public Undertakings examines public sector enterprises — not the general treasury watchdog.
*Why D is wrong:* Business Advisory Committee advises on Lok Sabha's legislative business — not financial scrutiny.
Q822HardBPSC Prelims
The Lok Sabha can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers under which Article, and what is the constitutional consequence?
AArticle 75; The Prime Minister alone must resign
BArticle 75(3); If the Council of Ministers loses the confidence of Lok Sabha, ALL ministers (including PM) must resign — the government falls
CArticle 356; President's Rule is automatically imposed
DArticle 85; Parliament is dissolved automatically
Show Answer
✔ B — Article 75(3); If the Council of Ministers loses the confidence of Lok Sabha, ALL ministers (including PM) must resign — the government falls
Article 75(3) states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). If the Council of Ministers loses the confidence of Lok Sabha through a No-Confidence Motion, the ENTIRE Council of Ministers (including the Prime Minister) must resign. This is the principle of collective responsibility. The President can then invite another person who commands Lok Sabha's confidence to form a new government, OR dissolve Lok Sabha and call fresh elections. No-Confidence motions in India: Nehru (1963), Shastri, Indira Gandhi, Rajiv Gandhi, V.P. Singh (1990), H.D. Deve Gowda, I.K. Gujral, A.B. Vajpayee (lost by 1 vote in 1999), Narendra Modi (2018 — defeated).
*Why A is wrong:* Collective responsibility means all ministers resign, not just PM.
*Why C is wrong:* President's Rule under Art 356 is not automatic after no-confidence vote.
*Why D is wrong:* Art 85 deals with Parliament's sessions/dissolution; dissolution is optional after no-confidence.
*Why A is wrong:* Collective responsibility means all ministers resign, not just PM.
*Why C is wrong:* President's Rule under Art 356 is not automatic after no-confidence vote.
*Why D is wrong:* Art 85 deals with Parliament's sessions/dissolution; dissolution is optional after no-confidence.
Polity — President of India
Q794MediumBPSC Prelims
The President of India is elected by which method?
ADirect election by all citizens of India
BElected by an Electoral College consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
CElected by only members of Lok Sabha
DElected by the Prime Minister and Cabinet
Show Answer
✔ B — Elected by an Electoral College consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
The President of India is elected through an Electoral College (Article 54) comprising: (1) elected members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha + Rajya Sabha); (2) elected members of Legislative Assemblies of all states; (3) elected members of Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories with legislatures (Delhi and Puducherry). Nominated members of Parliament and State Assemblies do NOT participate. Members of State Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishad) do NOT vote. The election uses proportional representation with single transferable vote (STV) system with weighted votes.
*Why A is wrong:* Presidential election is indirect — citizens don't vote directly.
*Why C is wrong:* Only Lok Sabha members participating would be incorrect; Rajya Sabha and State Assembly members also vote.
*Why D is wrong:* PM has no role in electing the President.
*Why A is wrong:* Presidential election is indirect — citizens don't vote directly.
*Why C is wrong:* Only Lok Sabha members participating would be incorrect; Rajya Sabha and State Assembly members also vote.
*Why D is wrong:* PM has no role in electing the President.
Polity — Fundamental Duties
Q795EasyBPSC Prelims
Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by which Amendment?
A42nd Amendment, 1976
B44th Amendment, 1978
C52nd Amendment, 1985
D73rd Amendment, 1992
Show Answer
✔ A — 42nd Amendment, 1976
Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, during the Emergency period (PM Indira Gandhi). They were inserted as Part IVA based on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee (1976). Originally 10 duties were included; an 11th duty (providing opportunities for education to one's child) was added by the 86th Amendment, 2002. India borrowed the concept of Fundamental Duties from the Soviet Constitution (USSR). They are non-justiciable but courts use them as interpretive tools.
*Why B is wrong:* 44th Amendment (1978, by Janata Party) restored rights curtailed during Emergency — restored Article 19, 20, 21 protections.
*Why C is wrong:* 52nd Amendment (1985) added the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law).
*Why D is wrong:* 73rd Amendment (1992) added Panchayati Raj provisions (Part IX).
*Why B is wrong:* 44th Amendment (1978, by Janata Party) restored rights curtailed during Emergency — restored Article 19, 20, 21 protections.
*Why C is wrong:* 52nd Amendment (1985) added the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law).
*Why D is wrong:* 73rd Amendment (1992) added Panchayati Raj provisions (Part IX).
Polity — Constitutional Bodies
Q796MediumBPSC Prelims
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is established under which Article of the Constitution, and which amendment made it a multi-member commission?
AArticle 324; 44th Amendment
BArticle 324; Not by amendment but by Presidential notification (1989 — two Election Commissioners added)
CArticle 356; 42nd Amendment
DArticle 280; 52nd Amendment
Show Answer
✔ B — Article 324; Not by amendment but by Presidential notification (1989 — two Election Commissioners added)
The Election Commission of India is established under Article 324 of the Constitution. Originally, Article 324 provided for a single Chief Election Commissioner. The President of India, under Article 324(2), can appoint other Election Commissioners when the work so requires. In 1989 (under PM Rajiv Gandhi), two additional Election Commissioners were appointed by presidential notification (not by constitutional amendment). After the 1993 Supreme Court case, all three members (CEC + 2 ECs) are treated as equal in status. Note: The Chief Election Commissioner can only be removed through impeachment process similar to a Supreme Court judge.
*Why A is wrong:* 44th Amendment restored rights diluted during Emergency — not related to ECI structure.
*Why C is wrong:* Article 356 is President's Rule; 42nd Amendment had many changes but not ECI multi-member expansion.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission, not ECI.
*Why A is wrong:* 44th Amendment restored rights diluted during Emergency — not related to ECI structure.
*Why C is wrong:* Article 356 is President's Rule; 42nd Amendment had many changes but not ECI multi-member expansion.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission, not ECI.
Q807HardBPSC Prelims
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) works under which Articles and reports to:
AArticle 148; Reports to Lok Sabha
BArticles 148–151; Reports to President/Governor who places the reports before Parliament/State Legislature
CArticle 280; Reports to Finance Ministry
DArticle 315; Reports to Union Public Service Commission
Show Answer
✔ B — Articles 148–151; Reports to President/Governor who places the reports before Parliament/State Legislature
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is established under Article 148. Articles 148–151 govern the CAG's appointment, duties, and independence. The CAG: (1) Audits accounts of Union and State governments; (2) Submits audit reports to the President (Union) or Governor (State); (3) President/Governor places these reports before Parliament/State Legislature respectively; (4) A Parliamentary Committee — the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) — examines these reports. The CAG is appointed by the President and can only be removed like a Supreme Court judge (address by both Houses of Parliament). Term: 6 years or age 65, whichever is earlier.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 148 is correct but CAG reports to President (not directly to Lok Sabha).
*Why C is wrong:* Article 280 is the Finance Commission — not CAG.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 315 is the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) — not CAG.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 148 is correct but CAG reports to President (not directly to Lok Sabha).
*Why C is wrong:* Article 280 is the Finance Commission — not CAG.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 315 is the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) — not CAG.
Q810EasyBPSC Prelims
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established under which Act?
AHuman Rights Act, 1973
BProtection of Human Rights Act, 1993
CConstitutional Amendment Act, 1994
DFundamental Rights Protection Act, 2000
Show Answer
✔ B — Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The NHRC is a statutory body (not constitutional). The Chairperson of NHRC must be a retired Chief Justice of India. The NHRC investigates violations of human rights, reviews safeguards for human rights protection, studies treaties and documents on human rights, and makes recommendations to the government. State Human Rights Commissions (SHRCs) are similarly established under the same Act.
*Why A is wrong:* Human Rights Act, 1973 is a fabricated name — no such act exists.
*Why C is wrong:* NHRC was not created by constitutional amendment; it's a statutory body.
*Why D is wrong:* Fundamental Rights Protection Act, 2000 does not exist — fabricated.
*Why A is wrong:* Human Rights Act, 1973 is a fabricated name — no such act exists.
*Why C is wrong:* NHRC was not created by constitutional amendment; it's a statutory body.
*Why D is wrong:* Fundamental Rights Protection Act, 2000 does not exist — fabricated.
Q823MediumBPSC Prelims
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is established under which Article and its members are appointed by:
AArticle 315; Finance Commission
BArticle 315; President of India
CArticle 280; Prime Minister
DArticle 324; Election Commission
Show Answer
✔ B — Article 315; President of India
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is established under Article 315 of the Constitution. The Chairman and members of UPSC are appointed by the President of India. UPSC conducts examinations for appointment to All India Services (IAS, IPS, IFoS) and central services. The UPSC Chairman/members serve a 6-year term (or until age 65, whichever is earlier). They can be removed only by the President on the grounds specified in Article 317 (misbehavior proved by Supreme Court inquiry). They cannot hold any office of profit under Government after retirement. The State PSCs (like BPSC) are established under Article 315 for states.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission, not UPSC.
*Why C is wrong:* Prime Minister doesn't appoint UPSC members — the President does.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 324 establishes the Election Commission of India.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission, not UPSC.
*Why C is wrong:* Prime Minister doesn't appoint UPSC members — the President does.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 324 establishes the Election Commission of India.
Polity — Parliament Procedures
Q797HardBPSC Prelims
A "Zero Hour" in Parliament refers to:
AThe first hour of Parliament session when government introduces bills
BThe time immediately after Question Hour (usually starting at 12 noon) when members raise urgent matters of public importance without prior notice
CThe period when Parliament is not in session (inter-session period)
DSpecial midnight sessions held for important legislative business
Show Answer
✔ B — The time immediately after Question Hour (usually starting at 12 noon) when members raise urgent matters of public importance without prior notice
Zero Hour is an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure — not mentioned in the Constitution or Rules of Procedure. It refers to the time after Question Hour (which concludes at ~12 noon) when members can raise urgent matters of public importance without any prior notice. The name "Zero Hour" reflects that it starts at "zero" (noon — midday) and matters are raised without prior notice (zero notice). Zero Hour was an informal practice starting in the 1960s; since 1997, the Lok Sabha Speaker has formalized procedures. Important parliamentary procedures: Question Hour (first hour), Zero Hour (noon), Adjournment Motion, No-Confidence Motion, Cut Motion.
*Why A is wrong:* The first hour is Question Hour, not Zero Hour.
*Why C is wrong:* Inter-session period is a recess, not Zero Hour.
*Why D is wrong:* Midnight sessions are exceptional events; not what Zero Hour means.
*Why A is wrong:* The first hour is Question Hour, not Zero Hour.
*Why C is wrong:* Inter-session period is a recess, not Zero Hour.
*Why D is wrong:* Midnight sessions are exceptional events; not what Zero Hour means.
Polity — Constitutional Amendments
Q798MediumBPSC Prelims
Which is the most comprehensive amendment to the Indian Constitution, sometimes called the "Mini-Constitution"?
A7th Amendment, 1956
B42nd Amendment, 1976
C44th Amendment, 1978
D86th Amendment, 2002
Show Answer
✔ B — 42nd Amendment, 1976
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is called the "Mini-Constitution" because it made sweeping changes to almost every part of the Constitution during the Emergency. Key changes: (1) Added Fundamental Duties (Article 51A); (2) Changed "sovereign democratic republic" to "sovereign socialist secular democratic republic" in Preamble; (3) Added "unity and integrity" to Preamble; (4) Expanded Parliament's power to amend the Constitution (Articles 368 overriding Kesavananda); (5) Extended Lok Sabha/Assembly terms to 6 years; (6) Added the three words: Socialist, Secular, Integrity. Many of these changes were reversed by the 44th Amendment (1978).
*Why A is wrong:* 7th Amendment (1956) reorganized states on linguistic basis — significant but not "Mini-Constitution."
*Why C is wrong:* 44th Amendment (1978) reversed excesses of 42nd — important but not the most comprehensive.
*Why D is wrong:* 86th Amendment (2002) added Right to Education but was not as sweeping.
*Why A is wrong:* 7th Amendment (1956) reorganized states on linguistic basis — significant but not "Mini-Constitution."
*Why C is wrong:* 44th Amendment (1978) reversed excesses of 42nd — important but not the most comprehensive.
*Why D is wrong:* 86th Amendment (2002) added Right to Education but was not as sweeping.
Q815HardBPSC Prelims
The 101st Constitutional Amendment (2016) inserted which provision and established which body?
AInserted Article 21A (Right to Education); established NCPCR
BInserted Articles 246A, 269A, 279A; established the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council
CInserted the 10th Schedule; established the Anti-Defection Tribunal
DInserted Article 370 abrogation; established the J&K Legislative Assembly
Show Answer
✔ B — Inserted Articles 246A, 269A, 279A; established the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council
The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016 introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime by: (1) Inserting Article 246A — granting concurrent power to both Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on GST; (2) Inserting Article 269A — for IGST (Inter-State GST) to be levied and collected by the Centre and shared with states; (3) Inserting Article 279A — establishing the GST Council. The GST Council consists of: Union Finance Minister (Chairperson), Union Minister of State for Finance, and State Finance Ministers. GST replaced 17 central and state taxes/levies. Effective date: July 1, 2017.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 21A and RTE were from the 86th Amendment (2002); NCPCR is a statutory body (2005), not 101st Amendment.
*Why C is wrong:* 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection) was added by 52nd Amendment (1985).
*Why D is wrong:* Article 370 abrogation was done through Presidential Order in August 2019, later upheld by the Supreme Court — it was not a constitutional amendment inserting new articles in the standard sense.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 21A and RTE were from the 86th Amendment (2002); NCPCR is a statutory body (2005), not 101st Amendment.
*Why C is wrong:* 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection) was added by 52nd Amendment (1985).
*Why D is wrong:* Article 370 abrogation was done through Presidential Order in August 2019, later upheld by the Supreme Court — it was not a constitutional amendment inserting new articles in the standard sense.
Polity — Preamble
Q799EasyBPSC Prelims
Which words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment (1976)?
A"Sovereign" and "Democratic"
B"Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity"
C"Republic" and "Justice"
D"Liberty" and "Equality"
Show Answer
✔ B — "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity"
The original Preamble (1950) read: "We the People of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens Justice, Liberty, Equality and to promote Fraternity..." The 42nd Amendment (1976) added three words: "Socialist" and "Secular" (after "Sovereign") and "Integrity" (after "Unity"). The revised preamble reads "Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic" and "Unity and Integrity of the Nation." The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution and can be amended — but its basic features (democratic, republican) cannot be destroyed.
*Why A is wrong:* "Sovereign" and "Democratic" were in the original Preamble.
*Why C is wrong:* "Republic" and "Justice" were in the original Preamble.
*Why D is wrong:* "Liberty" and "Equality" were in the original Preamble.
*Why A is wrong:* "Sovereign" and "Democratic" were in the original Preamble.
*Why C is wrong:* "Republic" and "Justice" were in the original Preamble.
*Why D is wrong:* "Liberty" and "Equality" were in the original Preamble.
Polity — Constitutional Provisions
Q803HardBPSC Prelims
The Supreme Court's jurisdiction includes "original jurisdiction" under Article 131. Which of the following correctly describes Article 131?
AOriginal jurisdiction to hear all civil and criminal cases
BExclusive original jurisdiction to decide disputes between the Union and states OR between states — provided the dispute involves a question of law or fact on which the existence of a legal right depends
CAppellate jurisdiction over High Court decisions
DAdvisory jurisdiction when the President seeks the Court's opinion
Show Answer
✔ B — Exclusive original jurisdiction to decide disputes between the Union and states OR between states — provided the dispute involves a question of law or fact on which the existence of a legal right depends
Article 131 confers EXCLUSIVE original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court to adjudicate disputes: (a) between the Government of India and one or more states; (b) between the Government of India and states on one side and one or more states on the other; (c) between two or more states. The dispute must involve a question of law or fact on which a legal right depends — trade disputes between states don't qualify. This jurisdiction is exclusive — such disputes cannot be heard by any other court. Advisory jurisdiction of SC is under Article 143 (President's reference). Appellate jurisdiction is under Articles 132–136.
*Why A is wrong:* SC's original jurisdiction under Art 131 is limited to inter-governmental disputes, not all civil/criminal.
*Why C is wrong:* Appellate jurisdiction is under Arts 132–136, not 131.
*Why D is wrong:* Advisory jurisdiction is Article 143, not 131.
*Why A is wrong:* SC's original jurisdiction under Art 131 is limited to inter-governmental disputes, not all civil/criminal.
*Why C is wrong:* Appellate jurisdiction is under Arts 132–136, not 131.
*Why D is wrong:* Advisory jurisdiction is Article 143, not 131.
Q828MediumBPSC Prelims
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) is significant because it:
AAbolished zamindari system and enabled land reforms
BGave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions by adding Part IX (Articles 243–243O) to the Constitution
CAdded Fundamental Duties to Part IVA
DIntroduced Goods and Services Tax
Show Answer
✔ B — Gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions by adding Part IX (Articles 243–243O) to the Constitution
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (effective April 24, 1993 — celebrated as Panchayati Raj Day) inserted Part IX (Articles 243–243O) into the Constitution, giving constitutional status to the three-tier Panchayati Raj system. Key provisions: (1) Three-tier system — Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti (Intermediate), Zila Parishad; (2) Five-year tenure for elected bodies; (3) 33% reservation for women in PRIs (many states have increased to 50%); (4) Reservation for SC/ST in proportion to population; (5) State Finance Commission; (6) State Election Commission; (7) 11th Schedule (29 subjects for Panchayats). Bihar has a strong Panchayati Raj system with 50% reservation for women.
*Why A is wrong:* Zamindari abolition was done by state laws in 1950s — not 73rd Amendment.
*Why C is wrong:* Fundamental Duties (51A) were added by 42nd Amendment (1976).
*Why D is wrong:* GST was introduced by 101st Amendment (2016).
*Why A is wrong:* Zamindari abolition was done by state laws in 1950s — not 73rd Amendment.
*Why C is wrong:* Fundamental Duties (51A) were added by 42nd Amendment (1976).
*Why D is wrong:* GST was introduced by 101st Amendment (2016).
Q830MediumBPSC Prelims
Under which Article does the Constitution provide for the establishment of the Finance Commission, and what is its mandate?
AArticle 270; Distribution of income tax proceeds between Centre and States
BArticle 280; Recommending distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Union and States, and grants-in-aid to States
CArticle 315; Recommending revenue sharing for public sector units
DArticle 324; Recommending electoral finance reforms
Show Answer
✔ B — Article 280; Recommending distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Union and States, and grants-in-aid to States
Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission, constituted by the President every 5 years (or when deemed necessary). The Finance Commission recommends: (1) Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Union and States (vertical devolution) and among states (horizontal distribution); (2) Principles governing grants-in-aid to states from Consolidated Fund of India; (3) Any other matter referred by the President. The 15th Finance Commission (2020–25) recommended 41% of central taxes to states. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body (not statutory). Recent FCs: 14th FC devolved 42%, 15th FC devolved 41% to states.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 270 deals with distribution of certain taxes and duties, not establishment of Finance Commission.
*Why C is wrong:* Article 315 establishes UPSC/SPSC — not Finance Commission.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 324 establishes Election Commission — not Finance Commission.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 270 deals with distribution of certain taxes and duties, not establishment of Finance Commission.
*Why C is wrong:* Article 315 establishes UPSC/SPSC — not Finance Commission.
*Why D is wrong:* Article 324 establishes Election Commission — not Finance Commission.
Polity — Prime Minister
Q805EasyBPSC Prelims
The Prime Minister of India is appointed by:
AThe President of India by direct election
BThe President of India who appoints the leader of the majority party/coalition in Lok Sabha
CThe Lok Sabha by direct vote among members
DThe members of the Cabinet
Show Answer
✔ B — The President of India who appoints the leader of the majority party/coalition in Lok Sabha
Under Article 75, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. In practice, the President appoints the leader of the party (or coalition) that commands majority support in the Lok Sabha. This is a constitutional convention — the President has no discretion when there is a clear majority. If no party has a clear majority (hung Parliament), the President may exercise some discretion in inviting someone to form a government and prove majority on the floor of the House. The PM is the de facto head of government while the President is the constitutional/nominal head of executive.
*Why A is wrong:* PM is not directly elected — even by electoral college — but indirectly via Lok Sabha majority.
*Why C is wrong:* Lok Sabha doesn't "vote" for PM; the President formally appoints based on majority party leadership.
*Why D is wrong:* Cabinet is appointed on PM's advice, not the other way around.
*Why A is wrong:* PM is not directly elected — even by electoral college — but indirectly via Lok Sabha majority.
*Why C is wrong:* Lok Sabha doesn't "vote" for PM; the President formally appoints based on majority party leadership.
*Why D is wrong:* Cabinet is appointed on PM's advice, not the other way around.
Polity — Federalism
Q806MediumBPSC Prelims
India is described as a "quasi-federal" state. Which of the following features makes India more unitary than federal?
ADivision of powers between Centre and States (Union, State, Concurrent Lists)
BSingle citizenship, integrated judiciary, appointment of Governors by President, Article 356 (President's Rule), Emergency provisions
CBicameral legislature at the Centre
DFundamental Rights and DPSP applicable uniformly
Show Answer
✔ B — Single citizenship, integrated judiciary, appointment of Governors by President, Article 356 (President's Rule), Emergency provisions
India is a federal state with unitary bias. Unitary features include: (1) Single citizenship; (2) Integrated judicial system (single hierarchy topped by Supreme Court); (3) Governors appointed by and removable by the President (not elected); (4) Rajya Sabha not equally powerful as US Senate; (5) Article 356 (President's Rule) — Centre can take over state administration; (6) Emergency provisions (Articles 352, 356, 360) — Centre gains extensive powers; (7) All-India Services (IAS, IPS) — controlled by Centre but serve states; (8) Parliament can alter state boundaries; (9) Residuary powers with Centre (not states). Federal features include: Division of powers (7th Schedule), written Constitution, bicameralism.
*Why A is wrong:* Division of powers (7th Schedule) is a FEDERAL feature, not unitary.
*Why C is wrong:* Bicameral legislature is a federal feature of Centre.
*Why D is wrong:* Uniform FRs and DPSP apply to whole territory but that's unity, not specifically making it unitary.
*Why A is wrong:* Division of powers (7th Schedule) is a FEDERAL feature, not unitary.
*Why C is wrong:* Bicameral legislature is a federal feature of Centre.
*Why D is wrong:* Uniform FRs and DPSP apply to whole territory but that's unity, not specifically making it unitary.
Polity — State Legislature
Q808MediumBPSC Prelims
The minimum age for becoming a member of the Rajya Sabha is:
A21 years
B25 years
C30 years
D35 years
Show Answer
✔ C — 30 years
Minimum age qualifications under the Constitution: Lok Sabha member — 25 years (Article 84); Rajya Sabha member — 30 years (Article 84); State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) — 25 years; State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) — 30 years; President — 35 years (Article 58); Vice President — 35 years (Article 66); Governor — 35 years (Article 157). The minimum age for voting (franchise) is 18 years (61st Amendment, 1989 reduced it from 21 to 18 years).
*Why A is wrong:* 21 years is not the minimum age for any legislative office; it's below the 25/30 year requirements.
*Why B is wrong:* 25 years is the minimum age for Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha — not Rajya Sabha.
*Why D is wrong:* 35 years is the minimum age for President and Governor — not Rajya Sabha member.
*Why A is wrong:* 21 years is not the minimum age for any legislative office; it's below the 25/30 year requirements.
*Why B is wrong:* 25 years is the minimum age for Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha — not Rajya Sabha.
*Why D is wrong:* 35 years is the minimum age for President and Governor — not Rajya Sabha member.
Q824EasyBPSC Prelims
Bihar Vidhan Sabha has how many seats?
A324
B243
C288
D294
Show Answer
✔ B — 243
Bihar Vidhan Sabha (State Legislative Assembly) has 243 seats. Bihar also has a Vidhan Parishad (Legislative Council) with 75 members — making Bihar one of the few states with a bicameral state legislature. The other states with Vidhan Parishads: Uttar Pradesh (100 seats), Maharashtra (78 seats), Karnataka (75 seats), Andhra Pradesh (58 seats), Telangana (40 seats). Bihar's political history: Bihar elected its first Chief Minister Sri Krishna Sinha (October 1946). Current CM: Nitish Kumar (JD-U).
*Why A is wrong:* 324 is the Rajya Sabha maximum strength — not Bihar's Vidhan Sabha seats.
*Why C is wrong:* 288 is Maharashtra's Vidhan Sabha seat count.
*Why D is wrong:* 294 is West Bengal's Vidhan Sabha seat count.
*Why A is wrong:* 324 is the Rajya Sabha maximum strength — not Bihar's Vidhan Sabha seats.
*Why C is wrong:* 288 is Maharashtra's Vidhan Sabha seat count.
*Why D is wrong:* 294 is West Bengal's Vidhan Sabha seat count.
Polity — Judicial Review
Q809HardBPSC Prelims
In which case did the Supreme Court expand the definition of "life and personal liberty" under Article 21 to include many unenumerated rights like the right to livelihood, right to health, right to education (before it became a Fundamental Right), and right to privacy?
AA.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950)
BManeka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
CFrancis Coralie Mullin v. Union Territory of Delhi (1981) and subsequent cases
DOnly Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
Show Answer
✔ C — Francis Coralie Mullin v. Union Territory of Delhi (1981) and subsequent cases
The expansion of Article 21 happened progressively through multiple cases: (1) Maneka Gandhi (1978) — overruled A.K. Gopalan; held "procedure established by law" must be fair, just, reasonable — interlinked Articles 21, 14, 19; (2) Francis Coralie Mullin (1981) — SC held Article 21 includes right to live with dignity, not mere animal existence; (3) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) — right to livelihood included in Article 21; (4) Unni Krishnan v. State of AP (1993) — right to education up to age 14; (5) Consumer Education Research Centre (1995) — right to health; (6) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) — right to privacy as fundamental right under Article 21.
*Why A is wrong:* A.K. Gopalan (1950) took a NARROW view of Article 21 (just freedom from physical restraint).
*Why B is wrong:* Maneka Gandhi was pivotal but Francis Coralie and subsequent cases actually expanded the rights further.
*Why D is wrong:* Puttaswamy (2017) added privacy but the expansion of Art 21 happened across multiple cases over decades.
*Why A is wrong:* A.K. Gopalan (1950) took a NARROW view of Article 21 (just freedom from physical restraint).
*Why B is wrong:* Maneka Gandhi was pivotal but Francis Coralie and subsequent cases actually expanded the rights further.
*Why D is wrong:* Puttaswamy (2017) added privacy but the expansion of Art 21 happened across multiple cases over decades.
Polity — Elections
Q811MediumBPSC Prelims
The concept of "First Past the Post" (FPTP) or plurality voting system is used in India for:
APresidential elections
BRajya Sabha elections
CLok Sabha and State Assembly elections
DPanchayat elections only
Show Answer
✔ C — Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections
India uses First Past the Post (FPTP) / Simple Plurality system for: Lok Sabha elections, State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) elections, and Panchayat/Municipal elections. Under FPTP, the candidate with the most votes (not necessarily majority) wins. Proportional Representation with Single Transferable Vote (PR-STV) is used for: Presidential election, Vice-Presidential election, and Rajya Sabha/Vidhan Parishad elections (where legislative members vote). The FPTP system was chosen for Lok Sabha to ensure stable government, though critics note it may not proportionally represent popular will.
*Why A is wrong:* Presidential election uses PR-STV with weighted votes by elected legislators.
*Why B is wrong:* Rajya Sabha uses PR-STV by state legislative members, not FPTP.
*Why D is wrong:* Panchayat elections use FPTP — but Lok Sabha and Assembly elections also use FPTP; the answer should include them.
*Why A is wrong:* Presidential election uses PR-STV with weighted votes by elected legislators.
*Why B is wrong:* Rajya Sabha uses PR-STV by state legislative members, not FPTP.
*Why D is wrong:* Panchayat elections use FPTP — but Lok Sabha and Assembly elections also use FPTP; the answer should include them.
Q826MediumBPSC Prelims
The delimitation of parliamentary and assembly constituencies is carried out by the:
AElection Commission of India
BCensus Commissioner's Office
CDelimitation Commission constituted by an Act of Parliament
DLok Sabha Speaker
Show Answer
✔ C — Delimitation Commission constituted by an Act of Parliament
Delimitation of constituencies (defining boundaries and seats of parliamentary/state assembly constituencies) is carried out by the Delimitation Commission — a statutory body constituted by Parliament under the Delimitation Act. The Commission is headed by a retired Supreme Court judge; the Chief Election Commissioner and State Election Commissioners are ex-officio members. Delimitation is based on the latest Census. Delimitation exercises: 1952, 1963, 1973, 2002 (orders from 2008). The Constitution (84th Amendment, 2002) froze the delimitation of constituencies based on Census 1991 until 2026, and the 87th Amendment (2003) used Census 2001 data only for reallotment of seats among states, not internal boundaries.
*Why A is wrong:* ECI administers elections but does not conduct delimitation — that's Delimitation Commission's job.
*Why B is wrong:* Census Commissioner counts population but doesn't draw constituency lines.
*Why D is wrong:* Lok Sabha Speaker has no role in delimitation.
*Why A is wrong:* ECI administers elections but does not conduct delimitation — that's Delimitation Commission's job.
*Why B is wrong:* Census Commissioner counts population but doesn't draw constituency lines.
*Why D is wrong:* Lok Sabha Speaker has no role in delimitation.
Polity — State Government
Q817EasyBPSC Prelims
Under Article 356, the President's Rule in a state can be imposed on the recommendation of whom?
AChief Minister of the state
BLok Sabha by resolution
CGovernor's report that constitutional governance has broken down in the state
DSupreme Court's direction
Show Answer
✔ C — Governor's report that constitutional governance has broken down in the state
Article 356 (President's Rule / State Emergency) can be proclaimed by the President if the President is satisfied that the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. This satisfaction is based on: (a) Governor's report that constitutional governance has broken down; or (b) The President's own assessment (without Governor's report). The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 2 months (by simple majority). It can be continued for up to 6 months (and up to 3 years with parliamentary approval every 6 months). The S.R. Bommai case (1994) ruled that the President's satisfaction is subject to judicial review.
*Why A is wrong:* CM cannot recommend President's Rule — they would typically resist it.
*Why B is wrong:* Lok Sabha doesn't approve before proclamation — it approves within 2 months after.
*Why D is wrong:* Supreme Court doesn't direct President's Rule; courts review it after imposition.
*Why A is wrong:* CM cannot recommend President's Rule — they would typically resist it.
*Why B is wrong:* Lok Sabha doesn't approve before proclamation — it approves within 2 months after.
*Why D is wrong:* Supreme Court doesn't direct President's Rule; courts review it after imposition.
Polity — Constitutional Law
Q818MediumBPSC Prelims
The "doctrine of basic structure" means:
AParliament can amend any part of the Constitution freely
BParliament's power to amend is unlimited as long as procedure in Article 368 is followed
CCertain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be destroyed or abridged even by constitutional amendment — these form the "basic structure"
DOnly the Preamble cannot be amended
Show Answer
✔ C — Certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be destroyed or abridged even by constitutional amendment — these form the "basic structure"
The Basic Structure doctrine was established in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). The Supreme Court held that while Parliament has wide amending power under Article 368, it cannot amend the Constitution so as to destroy its "basic structure" or essential features. Basic structure elements include (non-exhaustive): supremacy of the Constitution; republican and democratic form of government; secular character; separation of powers; federal character; judicial review; free and fair elections; independence of judiciary; rule of law; unity and integrity of India; fundamental rights essential to human dignity. This doctrine has been expanded by subsequent cases.
*Why A is wrong:* This is the pre-Kesavananda view — now overruled.
*Why B is wrong:* Same — the Court ruled in Kesavananda that Art 368 procedure is not sufficient protection by itself.
*Why D is wrong:* The doctrine applies to the whole Constitution, not just the Preamble; Preamble can be amended (as done in 1976) but cannot be amended to destroy basic structure.
*Why A is wrong:* This is the pre-Kesavananda view — now overruled.
*Why B is wrong:* Same — the Court ruled in Kesavananda that Art 368 procedure is not sufficient protection by itself.
*Why D is wrong:* The doctrine applies to the whole Constitution, not just the Preamble; Preamble can be amended (as done in 1976) but cannot be amended to destroy basic structure.
Q825HardBPSC Prelims
The concept of "severability" in Indian constitutional law means:
AThe power to divide states and create new states under Article 3
BIf one part of a law is struck down as unconstitutional, the remaining valid part of the law survives if it is severable from the void part
CThe power of courts to sever witness testimony in criminal trials
DThe doctrine that States can sever their relationship with the Centre in extreme circumstances
Show Answer
✔ B — If one part of a law is struck down as unconstitutional, the remaining valid part of the law survives if it is severable from the void part
The Doctrine of Severability (or separability) in constitutional law states: When a court strikes down part of a law as unconstitutional, the question arises whether the remaining portion of the law can stand. If the valid and invalid parts are separable (severable), only the invalid part is struck down and the rest remains in force. If they are inseparable (non-severable — because the legislature would not have enacted the valid part without the invalid part), the entire law may be struck down. This doctrine is applied by courts while exercising judicial review under Article 13 (laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights are void to the extent of inconsistency).
*Why A is wrong:* Creating new states is under Article 3 — not "severability."
*Why C is wrong:* Witness testimony severability is a procedural concept, not what constitutional severability means.
*Why D is wrong:* States cannot "sever" from the Centre — India has no right of secession.
*Why A is wrong:* Creating new states is under Article 3 — not "severability."
*Why C is wrong:* Witness testimony severability is a procedural concept, not what constitutional severability means.
*Why D is wrong:* States cannot "sever" from the Centre — India has no right of secession.
Polity — Article 370
Q821EasyBPSC Prelims
Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, which gave special status to Jammu & Kashmir, was:
APermanently entrenched and could never be removed
BRepealed by the 78th Amendment in 1999
CRevoked in August 2019 through Presidential Orders, and J&K was bifurcated into two Union Territories
DAmended by the 101st Amendment in 2016
Show Answer
✔ C — Revoked in August 2019 through Presidential Orders, and J&K was bifurcated into two Union Territories
Article 370 gave special autonomous status to Jammu & Kashmir. On August 5, 2019, the Government of India issued Presidential Orders under Article 370(1) effectively revoking the special status by extending the entire Indian Constitution to J&K. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 bifurcated J&K into two Union Territories: (1) J&K (with legislature) and (2) Ladakh (without legislature). The Supreme Court (5-judge bench, December 2023) upheld the Presidential Orders as constitutionally valid. Both UTs were created on October 31, 2019.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 370 itself described itself as "temporary" — not permanent.
*Why B is wrong:* 78th Amendment (1999) dealt with insertion of certain Acts in 9th Schedule — not Art 370.
*Why D is wrong:* 101st Amendment (2016) introduced GST — not related to Article 370.
*Why A is wrong:* Article 370 itself described itself as "temporary" — not permanent.
*Why B is wrong:* 78th Amendment (1999) dealt with insertion of certain Acts in 9th Schedule — not Art 370.
*Why D is wrong:* 101st Amendment (2016) introduced GST — not related to Article 370.
Polity — Governor
Q827EasyBPSC Prelims
Who appoints the Governor of a state in India?
AThe Chief Minister of the state
BThe President of India
CThe Parliament of India by vote
DThe State Legislature
Show Answer
✔ B — The President of India
Under Article 155, the Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India. The Governor serves at the pleasure of the President (Article 156) — meaning the President (on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers/PM) can remove the Governor at any time. This contrasts with the US system where state governors are directly elected. The Governor's term is nominally 5 years but they hold office at the President's pleasure. Qualifications: Indian citizen, age 35+, not be a member of either House of Parliament or State Legislature, should not hold any office of profit. The Governor acts as a link between Centre and State.
*Why A is wrong:* CM has no role in appointing the Governor — the Governor is the constitutional head above the CM.
*Why C is wrong:* Parliament doesn't vote to appoint Governors.
*Why D is wrong:* State Legislature doesn't appoint the Governor.
*Why A is wrong:* CM has no role in appointing the Governor — the Governor is the constitutional head above the CM.
*Why C is wrong:* Parliament doesn't vote to appoint Governors.
*Why D is wrong:* State Legislature doesn't appoint the Governor.
Polity — Parliamentary Privileges
Q829HardBPSC Prelims
Article 105 of the Constitution grants parliamentary privileges to members. Which of the following is NOT protected under parliamentary privilege?
AA member cannot be arrested during a session of Parliament (within 40 days before and after) for civil offences
BMembers cannot be sued for anything said in Parliament in the course of parliamentary proceedings
CMembers can be arrested for criminal offences even during parliamentary sessions
DParliament can punish strangers (outsiders) for breach of privilege
Show Answer
✔ C — Members can be arrested for criminal offences even during parliamentary sessions
Parliamentary privileges under Article 105 are immunities granted to MPs. Key privileges: (1) Freedom of speech in Parliament — no MP can be tried in any court for anything said in Parliament; (2) Freedom from arrest in civil cases — 40 days before and after session, MPs cannot be arrested for civil offences; (3) Members can be arrested for CRIMINAL OFFENCES even during session — criminal immunity does NOT apply (only civil immunity). This means MPs accused of criminal charges CAN be arrested even while Parliament is in session. The option C states this correctly — it is NOT a privilege (immunity from criminal arrest does NOT exist). Option C is the correct answer as the one that is NOT a privilege.
*Why A, B, D are wrong:* Each of these IS an actual parliamentary privilege — civil arrest immunity (A), speech immunity (B), and punishment power over strangers (D) are genuine privileges.
*Why A, B, D are wrong:* Each of these IS an actual parliamentary privilege — civil arrest immunity (A), speech immunity (B), and punishment power over strangers (D) are genuine privileges.